PRELIMS PYQ POLITY 2023 TO 2016,

POLITY 2023

1 Which among the following (Provision — Part of the Constitution) is not correctly matched?

(a) The Union Territories — Part VIII

(b) The Scheduled and Tribal Areas — Part X

(d) Official Language — Part XVII

2. Match list-I with list-li and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List - I List - II

(A) Article — 324 (1) National Commission for Schedule Castes

(B) Article — 315 (2) Finance Commission

(C) Article — 280 (3) Public Service Commission

(D) Article — 338 (4) Election Commission

(a) A-(3), B-(2), C-(4), D-(1)

(b) A-(4), B-(3), C-(2), D-(1)

(d) A-(1), B-(3), C-(4), D-(2)

3 Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activity —

(I) Appointment of the Drafting Committee

(II) Indian Constitution was adopted and enacted

(ill) Date of commencement of Indian Constitution

(IV) Constitution Assembly first met

Select the correct answer from the code given below— Code -

(a) III, II, I, IV (b) I\i', I, III, II (c) I, II, IV, Ill (d) l\/, I, II, Ill

4. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) —

Assertion (A) — The President can recommend to the Parliament to change the boundary of any state after seeking views of the concerned Legislature of that state on the subject within specified period.

Reason (R) — It is not mandatory for the President to accept the proposal of the concerned State Legislature.

Select the correct answer using the code given below-

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

5.With reference of the election of the Vice — President of India, which is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) The acts done by him as Vice — President before such declaration are considered valid.

(2) The acts done by him as Vice — President on the day of such declaration are not considered valid. Select the correct answer from the code given below - Code -

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

6. Who among the following is the first women Speaker in Lok Sabha?

(a) Pratibha Patil (b) Urmila Singh

7. Which one of the following pairs (Schedule Subjects) is not correctly matched?

(a) Third Schedule — Forms of Oaths or Affirmations

(b) Eight Schedule — Languages

(d) Tenth Schedule — Provisions as to disqualification on ground of defection

8. The Constitution of India initially permitted the use of English language for all official purposes

(a) 5 years (b) 10 years (c) 15 years (d) 20 years

4 Given below are two statements, one is labelled (A) as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R) — (R) Assertion (A) — The President is a part of the Parliament.

Reason (R) — A bill passed by the two Houses of the Parliament cannot become a law without the assent of the I President. Select the correct answer using the code given below -

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct (a) (A) explanation of

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct

(b) explanation of (A) (c) (A) is true but (R) is false

10. With reference to Union Finance Commission, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Finance Commission has a Chairman and six _____members.

(2) It submits its report to the NlTl Aayog.

Select the correct answer using the code given below—

Code - (a) Only 2 (b) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only 1 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

11.Consider the following statements concerning the powers of the Supreme Court to issue certain writs to stop violation of Fundamental Rights —

(1) The Supreme Court has power to issue writs like Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari which is appropriate for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

(2) Parliament may by law empower any other court to exercise within its jurisdiction the powers given to Supreme Court.

Which of the above mentioned statement/statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(a) Both 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 (c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. With reference to the Attorney General of India, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) A person is appointed as Attorney General, who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court.

(2) The Attorney General can be removed through the same process as the Judges of the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer from the code given below

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

13. With reference to the composition of the Legislative Council in a state of India, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) In the Legislative Council there may not be more than one-third members of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly of that state.

(2) The Legislative Council of a state must have at least forty members in it. Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

14. With reference to the representation of Uttar Pradesh in Parliament, which of the following

statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Uttar Pradesh has 31 seats allotted for Rajya Sabha.

(2) 80 members of Lok Sabha are elected from Uttar Pradesh.

Select the correct answer using the code given

below—

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

15. With reference to the post's in Secretariate of the Parliament, which of the following statement/s

is/are correct?

e created for the Secretariate of each House of Parliament.

(2) The Parliament has right to regulate the service conditions of Secretariate staff of

either House of it.

Select the correct answer from the code given

below— (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

16. Which of the following statements is not true regarding 'Gram Sabha'?

(a) it has the powers and functions at the village level, like state Legislature has at the state

level.

(b) Its powers are determined by the Central Government.

(d) (a) and (c) both

17. All elections to the Panchayats are conducted by-

(a) State Legislature (b) State Election Commission

of India Commission

18. With reference to the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) on Panchayati Raj, which of the following statement/s is/are correct?

(1) The three tier system of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the two tier system.

(2) A block should be the first point for decentralization under popular supervision below the state level. Select the correct answer using the code given below — Code -

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

19. The resignation letter by a Judge of Supreme Court is addressed to -

(a) The Chief Justice of (b) The senior most India Judge of Supreme Court

20. Which of the following is not a part of the Article 20 of the Constitution of India?

(a) Prohibition against (b) Double Jeopardy Self Incrimination Clause

21. Which of the following Provision is a part of both Directive Principles of State Policy and Fundamental Duties?

(a) Guardians to provide opportunity for education to children

(b) Protection of environment

(d) Uniform Civil Code

22. With reference to the joint sitting of Parliament, which statement/s is/are correct?

(1) Article 109 provides for the joint sitting of both Houses in certain cases.

2) The Speaker presides the joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below —

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2022

1. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? State Members in the Legislative Assembly

(a) Manipur - 62 (b) Goa - 40 (c) Uttar Pradesh - 403 (d) Uttarakhand - 70

https://www.eci.gov.in/term-of-the-houses

2. Right to Education has been included into the Fundamental Rights by the

(a) Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019

(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

(d) Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992

3.A Joint Public Services Commission for two or more States can be established by (joint word related parliament activity in 2023)

(a) Union Public Services Commission

(b) Parliament if requested by concerned states

(d) Lok Sabha

4.Right to Education has been included into the Fundamental Rights by the

(a) Constitution (103rd Amendment) Act, 2019

(b) Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

(d) Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992

5.Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched? State Members in the Legislative Assembly

(a) Manipur - 62 (b) Goa - 40 (c) Uttar Pradesh - 403 (d) Uttarakhand - 70

6. A Joint Public Services Commission for two or more States can be established by

(a) Union Public Services Commission

(b) Parliament if requested by concerned states

(d) Lok Sabha

7. The concept 'Basic Structure of the Constitution' was propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of

(a) Keshvanand Bharti vs State of Kerala-1973

(b) Golaknath vs State of Punjab-1967

(d) Yusuf vs State of Bombay-1954

sol.

The evolution of the Basic Structure doctrine can be traced from the issue of the right to property and the first Constitutional Amendment Act of 1951.

Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India (1951):Article 368, power to amend any part of the constitution, including fundamental rights.
Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan (1965): Article 368, Parliament could amend any part of the constitution.
- However, the concurring opinion by Justice Hidyatullah and Justice Mudholkar raised doubts over the unrestricted power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution and limit the fundamental rights of citizens.
Golak Nath vs. State Of Punjab Case (1967):
- In the Golaknath case (1967), the Supreme Court overturned Shankari Prasad judgment and ruled that Article 368 only lays down the procedure to amend the constitution and does not give absolute powers to the Parliament to amend any part of the constitution.
24^th Constitution Amendment Act (1971):
- To surpass the Golaknath judgment constraints, the government enacted the 24th Amendment act, which introduced a provision to Article 368 of the Constitution, which stated that the Parliament has the power to take away any of the fundamental rights.
- It also made it obligatory for the President to give his assent on all the Constitution Amendment bills sent to him.
Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala (1973):
- The Supreme Court, in this case, upheld the validity of the 24th Constitution Amendment Act by reviewing its decision in the Golaknath case.
- However, the Supreme Court held that the Parliament has the power to amend any provision of the constitution, but in doing so, the Basic Structure of the constitution is to be maintained.
- The Court propounded what has come to be known as the “Basic Structure of the Constitution”.
- Thus, this landmark judgment meant that every provision of the Constitution could be amended, but these amendments can be subjected to judicial review to ascertain that the Basic Structure of the Constitution remains intact.
42nd Amendment Act (1976):
- The government in 1976 enacted the 42nd Amendment Act that declared no limitation to the constituent power of Parliament under article 368.
- The amendment, also called the "Mini-constitution" for introducing wide-ranging constitutional changes, barred the courts from questioning constitutional amendments.
Minerva Mills vs. Union of India (1980):
- In this case, the Supreme Court invalidated provisions of the 42nd CAA and ruled that the Parliament cannot take away the power of ‘judicial review’ as it is a part of the ‘Basic Structure’.
Waman Rao vs. Union of India (1981):
- Also known as the ‘Doctrine of Prospective Overruling’, the court decided that all the laws placed under Ninth Schedule before the Kesavananda judgment cannot be called into question for violating Fundamental Rights. However, the laws post the judgment can be raised before a court of law.
- The Supreme Court again reiterated the Basic Structure doctrine in this case.
Indra Sawhney & Others vs. Union of India(1992):
- Also known as the Mandal case, the Supreme Court declared the Rule of Law as a Basic Structure of the constitution.
Kihoto Hollohan Case (1993)/Defection case
the Supreme Court added Free and fair elections, Sovereign, Democratic and Republican structure to the Basic Structure of the Constitution.
S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India (1994):
- The Supreme Court declared Federalism, Secularism, and Democracy as the Basic Structure of the Constitution.

8.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(Person) (Concerned with)

A. M.S. Swaminathan 1. Social control on Banks

B. L.K. Jha 2. Milk Production

C. Verghese Kurien 3. Green Revolution

D. Morarji Desai 4. E c o n o m i c Administration Reforms

Code: A B C D (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (c) 1 2 4 3

9.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(Yojna/Programme) (Launching Year)

A. National Rural 1. 1995 Health Mission

B. National Social 2. 2005 Assistance Programme

C. Swan Jayanti Gram 3. 2001 Swarojgar Yojna

D. Sampoorna Grameen 4. 1999 Rojgar Yojna

Code: A B C D (a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3 (c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1 2 3 4

10. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as

Assertion (A) and the other as Resaon (R). Assertion

(A): The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution is considered to be a watershed in the history of local self goverment in India. Reason

(R): The 73rd Constitution Amendment conferred the much coveted Constitutioanl status on Panchayats.

Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true

(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

12.Consider the following Political Parties and arrange them in the chronological order of their establishment.

I. Bahujan Samaj Party

II. Samajwadi Party

III. Telugu Desham Party

IV. All India Trinamool Congress

Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

(a) III, I, II, IV (b) II, I, III, IV (c) III, II, I, IV (d) I, II, III, IV

13.The audit report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is examined by

(a) Public Accounts Committee

(b) Public Undertaking Committee

(d) None of the above

14.When was the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act passed by Indian Parliament?

sol.The Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act (PESA) was passed by the Indian Parliament on December 24, 1996. The act was passed to establish a Panchayati Raj System in the Fifth Schedule Areas of the Constitution of India and to grant tribal self-rule in these areas.

The PESA Act was based on the report of the Bhuria Committee, which was appointed by the government in 1994 to study community resource practices.

15.The first Interim National Government was announced on

(a) 25th August 1946

(b) 24th August 1946

(d) 22th August 1946

16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II (Schedule) (Subject)

A. Third Schedule 1. Allocation of Seats in the Council of States

B. Fourth Schedule 2. Forms of Oath or Affirmations

C. Seventh Schedule 3. Languages

D. Eighth Schedule 4. List of subject matter of laws to be made by the parliament and by State Legislatures

Code: A B C D (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1 (c) 2 1 4 3 (c) 1 2 3 4

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below the lists.

List-I List-II

(Commitee) (Year of Appointment)

A. Balwant Rai Mehta 1. 1957

B. Ashok Mehta 2. 1977

C. L. M. Singhvi 3. 1986

D. P. K. Thungun 4. 1988

Code: A B C D (a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 3 1 4 (c) 3 4 2 1

18.Which of the following three States of india were top performing States under 'NITI Ayog's State Energy and Climate Index' declared on 10th April 2022?

(a) Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram

(b) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Karnataka

(d) Punjab, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal

19.Consider the following subjects and arrange them into sequentail order as mentioned in the Constitution.

I. The union and its territory

II. Fundamental duties

III. Citizenship

IV. Directive Principles of of State Policy

Select the correct answer from the code given below: Code:

(a) II, IV, I, III (b) I, III, IV, II (c) III, I, II, IV (d) IV, II, III, I

20.Which one of the following did NOT serve as Vice President before assuming the Office of teh President of India?

(a) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma

(b) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(d) R. Venkatraman

21. By which amendment of the Constitution, 'Delhi' has been made National Capital Region?

(a) 75th (b) 73th (c) 70rd (d) 69th

22. Who among the following have signed the agreement to resolve Assam-Meghalaya border dispute in March 2022?

(a) Home Secretary of India cand Chiif Secretaries of Assam and Meghalaya

(b) Home Secretary of India and Director Generals of Police of Assam and Meghalaya

(d) Union Home Minister, Chief Ministers of Assam and Meghalaya

23.Which of the following is NOT a fundamental duty?

(a) To protect monuments and places of national importance

(b) to protect and improve the natural environment

(d) to respect the National Anthem

24. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

Lok Sabha Election Year

(a) 13th 1999

(b) 11th 1996

(d) 7th 1982

2021

1. "Can you show me one free country where there are separate electorates? ... The British element is gone, but they have left mischief behind". Who among the following said the above mentioned statement in the Constituent Assembly debates? (a) Somnath Lahiri (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (d) N. G. Ranga

2. How many districts of Uttar Pradesh has been covered under the Aspirational District Programme run by NITI Aayog, up to June, 2021? (a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10

3. On the recommendation of which Commission/ Committee, the Inter-state Council was set up in India? (a) Punchhi Commission (b) Rajmannar Committee (c) Kothari Committee (d) Sarkaria Commission

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List - I List - II (State) (Representation in Rajya Sabha) A. Rajasthan 1. 10 seats B. Gujarat 2. 7 seats C. Karnataka 3. 11 seats D. Punjab 4. 12 seats Codes: A B C D (a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 1 2

5.13. Which one of the following Acts of British India strengthened the Viceroy's authority over his executive council by. substituting 'portfolio' or 'departmental'. system for corporate functioning? (a) Indian Council Act, 1861 (b) Government of India Act, 1858 (c)Indian Council Act, 1892 (d) Indian Council Act, 1909.

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PRELIMS PYQ POLITY 2023 TO 2016,

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